posted by
ptc24 at 11:04am on 04/05/2010
I've intentionally excluded all of the nuanced answers to the questions of human height, and provided a straight choice between two gross oversimplifications. But which do you prefer, or at any rate least despise?
Poll #3000 Stupid forced-choice poll
Open to: Registered Users, detailed results viewable to: All, participants: 16
Human height - which of these two statements is less bad:
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Interestingly if you'd made it about, say, maths ability (or indeed anything which might involve a value judgment) I'd find an equivalent statement much more problematic.
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The very strongest men appear to be stronger than the very strongest women (comparing people who compete at weight lifting), but it's not clear to me how strong the "average" man and the "average" woman would be; especially if they both undertook the same amount of strength training activities.
If I were running a weight-lifting competition I would probably assume the men would lift larger weights than the women. If I wanted someone to help me lift a box I'd probably assume that my female friends are just as capable of doing so as my male friends.
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Unfortunately it's hard to verify these claims, but it's interesting to think about. I think both statements are bad because the first statement implies that every man is taller than every woman, whereas the second implies that everyone is the same height.
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My morning's googling revealed this which suggests that the height distribution is almost-but-not-quite bimodal, and that most people thing of height as the textbook example of a bimodal distribution. In other words, height dimorphism is "less than most people think, but real nonetheless".
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