posted by
ptc24 at 01:15pm on 07/06/2010
Imagine a country, let's call it "country A", where polygamy is permitted; men may have up to four wives, but women may only have one husband. A man in A will avail himself of this privilege with gusto if he is able to do so; in A the decision of whether to marry or not is mainly the man's, and the women have little say in the matter. Let us also assume that there is substantial inequality among men in A. Finally, assume that there's no huge demographic problem in A, no war that killed a large proportion of marriageable men but has left the women untouched.
I now give you a forced-choice poll, where you have to pick which of these two descriptions is the least bad.
I now give you a forced-choice poll, where you have to pick which of these two descriptions is the least bad.
Poll #3351 Forced-choice poll
Open to: Registered Users, detailed results viewable to: All, participants: 16
The situation above would be better described by saying:
View Answers
"A is a country where men have four wives"
13 (81.2%)
"A is a country where men have no wives"
3 (18.8%)
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BTW if you want to force us to choose one or the other wouldn't a radio-button poll have been better than ticky-boxes?
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I don't think I can explain why I thought that, but (assuming having four wives is more common) possible reasons for answering B would include:
1. Because having no wife is prevalent (which objectively seems better than all the other reasons below).
But possible reasons for answering (A) would include:
1. Because having four wives is in many countries unheard of, so saying anyone at all having four wives is informative.
2. It conveys the total distribution better, because, logically, if many men have four wives, there must be many men with none, whereas if many men have no wives, there could be a number of reasons.
3. Because we're used to people massively exaggerating the prevalence of multiple spouses, so we know that when someone says "men have four wives" they likely mean "ever" not "always".
Can I ask what prompted the question?
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Apparently in practice the very rich keep four wives in style, the very poor have four wives all with nothing and the middle classes have only one so as to better keep up with the Joneses (or local equivalent).